Mẹo Which of the following statements is true regarding the overall model of consumer behavior?

Kinh Nghiệm về Which of the following statements is true regarding the overall model of consumer behavior? 2022

Hoàng Thị Thanh Mai đang tìm kiếm từ khóa Which of the following statements is true regarding the overall model of consumer behavior? được Cập Nhật vào lúc : 2022-10-21 00:30:17 . Với phương châm chia sẻ Bí quyết Hướng dẫn trong nội dung bài viết một cách Chi Tiết Mới Nhất. Nếu sau khi Read nội dung bài viết vẫn ko hiểu thì hoàn toàn có thể lại Comments ở cuối bài để Ad lý giải và hướng dẫn lại nha.
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Which of the following statements is true about consumer Behaviour?Which of the following is a key aspects regarding consumer behavior?Which of the following best represents the definition of consumer behavior?What are customer behaviors quizlet?

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QuestionAnswer1) What a product or service is worth to a customer is the: Answer: customer value. 2) Which of the following statements is true regarding the first-degree of price discrimination? Answer: It involves charging different prices to segments of the market according to their price elasticity or sensitivity. 3) Charging different prices to different segments according to their price elasticity or sensitivity is commonly known as: Answer: price discrimination. 4) Price variations within a product category are called: Answer: price bands. 5) Which of the following is most likely a reason of why some categories have large numbers of product variants? Answer: to keep competitors from getting shelf space 6) Because more competition implies greater convergence on a standard price, a large number of suppliers in a product category most likely results in: Answer: narrower price bands. 7) Which of the following is the the maximum price someone is willing to pay for a product? Answer: reservation price 8) Which of the following statements is true about perceived value? Answer: Perceived value is always relative. 9) Strategically pricing below customer value is called: Answer: value pricing. 10) Which of the following best describes setting a price the level determined to represent the customer's perceived value for your product? Answer: pricing to value 11) In this situation, the manager has set a price that is higher than the target market is willing to pay. The customer looks this situation as a bad giảm giá and, unless the company has a monopoly or some other kind of market power, does not buy. Identify the situation. Answer: price > perceived value > cost 12) This scenario clearly represents a failure. Usually, such products are weeded out in the new-product development process. If not, they are ultimately withdrawn from the market. Identify this scenario. Answer: price > cost > perceived value 13) Identify the correct formula for the calculation of price elasticity of demand. Answer: E = percent change in demand/percent change in price 14) When the absolute value of price elasticity of demand is ________, the category is price elastic. Answer: greater than 1 15) With regard to price elasticity, if a product's price is low to the point where there is considerable value left for the customer (a good giảm giá), an increase in price will: Answer: not have much impact. 16) As the price of a product gets closer to customer value, Answer: price elasticity will increase. 17) The concept of "value-in-use" is a useful method of estimating customer value for: Answer: industrial products. 18) Identify the approach where the benefits of the product are put in monetary terms such as time savings, less use of materials, or less downtime. Answer: value-in-use 19) Which of the following best describes a trend in business to purchase a service from an outside vendor to replace the company's operation? Answer: outsourcing 20) Which of the following approaches to calculating customer value creates a scale that puts survey responses in monetary terms? Answer: dollarmetric method 21) Which of the following is a marketing research method that uses theoretical profiles or concepts to determine how customers value different levels of product attributes? Answer: conjoint analysis 22) This method is an alternative to survey-based methods and takes place in a real environment. It tries to obtain actual market data after manipulating price in different markets. Identify this method. Answer: field experimental method 23) An understanding of the cost structure of the market provides marketing managers with: Answer: an idea of how low some competitors can price. 24) Purchasing a competitor's product and taking it apart, studying the cost of the components, and packaging describes the process of: Answer: reverse engineering. 25) Identify the phenomenon in which the conventional functional relationship assumed is that unit costs are a decreasing function of accumulated experience, or production volume. Answer: the experience curve 26) Full cost plus some target margin are used to set price in a: Answer: nonmarket-driven firm. 27) ________ are spread out over many years and sometimes different products. Answer: Development costs 28) Development costs are best described as: Answer: expenses involved in bringing new products to the market. 29) If there is no legal way to keep competitors out of the market, these costs must be viewed as sunk costs that do not affect decision making after the product is introduced into the market. Identify the type of cost being discussed. Answer: development cost 30) Costs such as the corporate jet and the president's salary are examples of: Answer: overhead costs. 31) Which of the following best describes the costs that must ultimately be covered by revenues from individual products, but are not associated with any one product? Answer: overhead costs 32) Costs, such as the marketing manager's salary and product-related advertising and promotion expenses, are examples of: Answer: direct fixed costs. 33) Which of the following statements is true regarding a direct fixed cost? Answer: These costs do not vary with sales volume. 34) Which of the following describes the per-unit cost of making the product or delivering the service? Answer: variable costs 35) Which of the following statements is true about variable costs? Answer: These costs must be recovered by the price. 36) Which of the following is a concern for marketing managers when price is used as a cost-recovery mechanism? Answer: a mismatch between price and customers' perceptions of value 37) Market share pricing is also known as: Answer: penetration pricing. 38) Which of the following strategies entails giving most of the value to the customer and keeping a small margin? Answer: penetration pricing 39) Which of the following pricing strategies is used to gain as much market share as possible? Answer: penetration pricing 40) Identify the pricing strategy that is useful for preventing competitive entry. Answer: penetration pricing 41) Which of the following best describes a situation when penetration pricing should be used? Answer: when a large segment of the customer base is price-sensitive 42) The opposite of the penetration pricing is: Answer: skimming. 43) Skimming is also known as ________ pricing. Answer: prestige 44) Which of the following pricing strategies is the most appropriate when costs are not related to volume and managers are less concerned about building significant market share? Answer: skimming 45) Which of the following describes a situation when skimming should be used? Answer: when there is a strong price—perceived quality relationship 46) Which of the following describes establishing a price that provides the rate of return demanded by senior management? Answer: return on sales pricing 47) Which of the following pricing objectives is useful only when the product has a monopoly or near monopoly position so that the market will produce the needed sales volume the price set? Answer: investment pricing 48) Which of the following best describes the pricing objective typically used by regulated utilities such as gas and electricity? Answer: investment pricing 49) Telephone rates for large users such as telemarketing firms and banks fall under this category. Identify this pricing objective category. Answer: pricing for stability 50) Which of the following pricing objectives describes a situation where the marketer attempts to price the product the market average or match a particular brand's price? Answer: competitive pricing 51) Which of the following pricing objectives is appropriate when customers have not been persuaded that significant differences exist among the competitors and that they view the product as a commodity? Answer: competitive pricing 52) When Microsoft introduced the Xbox videogame console in 2001, the company priced it $299, exactly the same price as Sony's PlayStation 2, the market leader. Identify this pricing strategy. Answer: competitive pricing 53) Identify the concept related to the psychological aspects of price. Answer: reference price 54) A ________ is any standard of comparison against which an observed potential transaction or purchase price is compared. Answer: reference price 55) In the retail business, the reference price is often listed on the sales tag as the: Answer: original price. 56) Internal reference prices are formed from advertising, past purchasing experience, and so on, and are often called ________ because the customer considers them the actual prices of the products in a category. Answer: perceived prices 57) ________ goods are products that you have to try before assessing its quality. Answer: Experience 58) If the quality of a product or service is difficult to evaluate even after you have purchased and used the product or service, the product falls under the category of: Answer: credence goods. 59) High buyer power tends to ________ prices and high supplier power ________ the floor beneath which prices cannot be set. Answer: depress; raises 60) Identify the approach that integrates a set of products and offers them in a package that is usually lower in price than the sum of the prices of the individual components. Answer: price bundling 61) The ________ approach involves offering both a high-priced and a low-priced brand that would result in brands multiple price tiers. Answer: congestion pricing 62) Which of the following pricing tactics applies to products that are used together when one of the products is a consumable that must be replenished continually? Answer: complementary pricing 63) Which of the following statements is true about value pricing? Answer: It gives customers more value than they expect for the price paid. 64) ________ pricing gives customers more value than they expect for the price paid. Answer: Value 65) The senior citizen discounts given movie theaters and quantity discounts on personal computers given to large customers are examples of: Answer: price discrimination. 66) A disposable diaper company prices its newborn disposable diapers higher than later-stage diapers to take advantage of new parents' concerns and concomitant extreme price insensitivity. This is an example of: Answer: congestion pricing. 67) Identify the strategy that involves selling the extra production a discount to a market separate from the main market. Answer: second-market discounting 68) Theater tickets cost more on weekends. This is an example of: Answer: periodic discounting. 69) Identify the strategy that allows customers to choose the option that best suits their level of usage. Answer: per-use pricing 70) Identify the main advantage of the Web as an auction site. Answer: the size of the audience 71) A customer, in determining what a product or service is worth, considers the cost of producing the product or the service. Answer: FALSE 72) Strategy decisions do not lead to a specific price-setting rule; rather, they give general guidelines for whether a price should be low or high. Answer: TRUE 73) Charging different prices to different segments according to their price elasticity or sensitivity is known as price discrimination. Answer: TRUE 74) A larger number of suppliers within a product category results in a broader price band. Answer: FALSE 75) More competition implies greater divergence on a standard price. Answer: FALSE 76) Reservation price is the most someone is willing to pay for a product. Answer: TRUE 77) There is no single perceived value in the marketplace. Answer: TRUE 78) Perceived value is always relative. Answer: TRUE 79) Strategically pricing below customer value is often called pricing to value. Answer: FALSE 80) Price elasticity of demand is the percent change in demand divided by a percent change in price. Answer: TRUE 81) The value-in-use method works well with products and services for which it is difficult to quantify the economic benefits. Answer: FALSE 82) The dollarmetric method is used in conjunction with survey based methods that create a scale that puts survey responses in monetary terms. Answer: TRUE 83) The conventional functional relationship assumed in experience curve economics is that unit costs are an increasing function of accumulated experience, or production volume. Answer: FALSE 84) Often variable costs are spread out over many years and sometimes different products. Answer: FALSE 85) The expenditure incurred for product-related advertising and promotion is an example of direct fixed costs. Answer: TRUE 86) The corporate jet expenditure is an example of a direct fixed cost. Answer: FALSE 87) Direct fixed costs do not vary with sales volume. Answer: TRUE 88) Prestige pricing entails giving most of the value to the customer and retaining a small margin. Answer: FALSE 89) Skimming is also known as penetration pricing. Answer: FALSE 90) Investment pricing implies that you can set a price that delivers the rate of return demanded by senior management. Answer: TRUE 91) Haircuts and legal advice can be cited as examples of credence goods. Answer: FALSE 92) In a product category, higher price levels can be sustained if the barriers to entry are low. Answer: FALSE 93) The concept of unused capacity is important in product categories with high-fixed-cost and high contribution-margin. Answer: TRUE 94) In price bundling, the package price is usually higher than the sum of the individual components. Answer: FALSE 95) Automobiles and gas are examples of complementary products. Answer: TRUE 96) The best way to defend your brand against the incursion of private labels is to lower the price. Answer: FALSE 97) When the domestic currency is weak, full-costing or cost-plus pricing does not hurt you so much because the exchange rate keeps the selling price down. Answer: TRUE 98) Describe the three possible relationships among perceived value, price and cost, ignoring competition for the present. Answer: 99) Explain the four different kinds of costs to consider when using costs to set price. Answer: 100) Describe the five major pricing objectives discussed in the text. Answer: 101) Briefly describe any three specific pricing tactics discussed in the text. Answer: 102) Describe the four methods of implementing differential pricing. Answer: 1) Which of the following statements is true regarding integrated marketing communications (IMAnswer:? Answer: It coordinates different elements of the marketing mix to prevent customer confusion from conflicting messages. 2) Identify the element of communication process that can be the creative part of an advertisement or Web site. Answer: encoding 3) A person watching a television commercial home is distracted by a crying baby. In the communication process, the crying baby can be cited as an example of: Answer: a noise. 4) Which of the following is an example of a personal channel of communication? Answer: sales force 5) Mass truyền thông, which includes television, newspapers, radio, direct mail, billboards, magazines, and the Internet are often referred to as ________ channels of communication. Answer: nonpersonal 6) Companies often receive feedback from user groups who form their own electronic clubs who can form a collective opinion and quickly supply information about new or developing products. These electronic clubs are known as: Answer: listservs. 7) Which of the following is one of the factors related to richness of communication? Answer: possibility of customization 8) If we plot the traditional trade-off between richness and reach with reach plotted on the X-axis and richness on the Y-axis, identify the channel of communication that would be the upper left of the line. Answer: personal selling 9) ________ has traditionally been defined as any paid form of nonpersonal communication about an organization, product, service, or idea by an identified sponsor. Answer: Advertising 10) Which of the following statements is true about mass truyền thông? Answer: Television advertising is an example of mass truyền thông. 11) Which of the following statements is true regarding advertising? Answer: Advertising is usually used to build sales in the long term. 12) Which of the following best describes any communication form that sends messages directly to a target market with the anticipation of an immediate or short-term response? Answer: direct marketing 13) Which of the following is not a way to implement direct marketing? Answer: sales promotion 14) ________ involves sending letters or catalogues to reach potential customers. Answer: Direct mail marketing 15) Identify the approach that uses friends and neighbors as the sales force. Answer: direct sales 16) Which of the following is true about direct marketing? Answer: Many customers are put off by direct marketing efforts. 17) Communication activities that provide extra incentives to customers or the sales force to achieve a short-term objective are called: Answer: sales promotion. 18) Which of the following best describes a communication activity that includes elements such as coupons, point-of-purchase savings, sweepstakes, rebates, and không lấy phí samples? Answer: consumer-oriented promotions 19) Promotions targeting channels of distribution in an effort to get the channels to carry and promote the product are known as: Answer: trade promotions. 20) Identify the objective of trade promotions. Answer: get channels to carry the product and promote it 21) Which of the following statements is true regarding sales promotion? Answer: Customers are induced to become price-sensitive. 22) Communications for which the sponsoring organization does not pay are known as: Answer: public relations. 23) Which of the following is the advantage of public relations? Answer: the message originates from an unbiased source 24) Which of the following involves face-to-face communications between seller and buyer ? Answer: personal selling 25) For companies marketing business-to-business products and services, the largest part of the marketing budget is usually allocated to: Answer: personal selling. 26) Which of the following statements is true about personal selling? Answer: Personal selling is expensive. 27) Which of the following is the first stage of the advertising decision-making process? Answer: selecting the target audience 28) Which of the following is the final stage of the advertising decision-making process? Answer: measuring advertising effects 29) The stage where customers are becoming aware of the product and developing knowledge of the product's attributes and benefits is known as: Answer: cognitive stage. 30) Which of the following represents a level of response which the customer has gone beyond mere knowledge of the product and has begun to develop attitudes, preferences, and perhaps interest? Answer: affective stage 31) Visiting a retailer to see a product demonstration is an example of which of the following levels of response? Answer: behavior 32) With reference to the three basic stages of the advertising response process, what type of objective should be used if marketing research determines that awareness is high but few potential customers perceive the product favorably? Answer: affective objectives 33) With reference to the three basic stages of the advertising response process, inducing trial for a product is an example of which of the following? Answer: behavioral objectives 34) Which of the following characterizes the maturity stage of the product life cycle? Answer: competition is intense and the products are fairly similar in terms of their characteristics 35) Which of the following types of appeals focuses on the functional or practical aspects of the product and emphasize facts, learning, and persuasion? Answer: informational appeals 36) Which of the following types of informational appeals focuses on the dominant attributes or characteristics of the product or service, or the benefits provided? Answer: feature/benefit appeals 37) ________ appeals make either a direct or indirect claim of superiority against a targeted or general class of competitors. Answer: Competitive advantage 38) Identify the advertisements in which some kind of announcement about the product dominates the copy. Answer: news appeals 39) Which of the following types of appeals is used to develop an image-oriented advertisement which is used for product categories where it is difficult to establish tangible differential advantages? Answer: emotional appeals 40) Which of the following statements is true about advertisements that are created using emotional appeals? Answer: Advertisements created using emotional appeals focus on imagery and symbols. 41) In these ads, the copy touts how popular the product is among the target audience. Identify the informational appeal being used. Answer: product or service popularity appeal 42) Identify the appeals that are intended to tap an underlying psychological benefit of the purchase decision? Answer: emotional appeals 43) Respondents are shown both control and test ads. After viewing the ads, they are asked what information they recall from the ads and which they liked best. The ads with the highest recall and liking are considered to be the most effective. Identify the laboratory test conducted. Answer: portfolio test 44) ________ is the most common form of testing for advertising concepts. Answer: Consumer jury 45) Eye tracking is an example of: Answer: physiological methods. 46) Which of the following types of laboratory tests is implemented by counting the number of syllables per 100 words, the length of sentences, and other structural aspects of the copy? Answer: readability test 47) Which of the following tests is a laboratory test used for print ads? Answer: readability test 48) Which of the following tests is most likely to be used for pretesting television commercials? Answer: theater test 49) In this testing procedure, the researcher attempts to simulate a shopping environment by setting up a supermarket-like shopping shelf with real brands. Identify this testing procedure. Answer: laboratory stores 50) Which of the following tests is a real-world measure? Answer: inquiry test 51) Which of the following tests is the most widely used method for posttesting print ads? Answer: recognition test 52) Which of the following is true regarding television advertising? Answer: It is the best medium for action and image advertising. 53) Which of the following is true regarding print ads? Answer: Print has archival value. 54) Which of the following statements is true regarding radio? Answer: Radio can reach audiences quickly. 55) Which of the following is an example of a "new" truyền thông? Answer: the Web 56) Cost-per-thousand (CPM) is a measure of: Answer: the efficiency of a truyền thông type. 57) Gross rating point (GRP) is a popular counting measure for: Answer: television. 58) If a commercial is shown four times on a show reaching 20 percent of the target audience, calculate the GRP (gross rating point). Answer: 80 GRP 59) Identify the two subcategories of contextual fit. Answer: truyền thông fit and program and ad context 60) The "flighting" pattern of advertising can be best described by: Answer: a burst of advertising alternated with a period of no advertising. 61) Flighting or pulsing can lead to: Answer: higher temporary peak in recall. 62) The "pulsing" pattern of advertising is characterized by: Answer: a basic level of advertising combined with regularly scheduled bursts of advertising. 63) Which of the following statements is true regarding the percentage of sales approach to budgeting? Answer: It selects a percentage of sales, either past or expected to devote to advertising. 64) Which of the following approaches to budgeting attempts to spend levels proportional to the competition's spending? Answer: competitive parity 65) Which of the following approaches to budgeting is the ultimate in "advertising as a cost of doing business" thinking and is similar in spirit to the percentage-of-sales method? Answer: affordability 66) Which of the following approaches to budgeting involves trying different levels of spending–either in different regions or in more controlled settings–and monitoring the results? Answer: experimentation 67) Which of the following approaches to budgeting involves using computerized decision support systems (DSSs) such as ADBUDG to structure budget decisions systematically? Answer: decision calculus 68) Price is a communication tool. Answer: TRUE 69) In Integrated Marketing Communications, marketing messages are coordinated to reinforce what each is saying and to prevent customer confusion from conflicting messages. Answer: TRUE 70) The two major participants in a marketing communication process are the customers and the competitors. Answer: FALSE 71) Personal channel of communication includes direct contact, such as a sales force or salespeople in a retail channel. Answer: TRUE 72) Direct mail is an example of a personal channel of communication. Answer: FALSE 73) Internet is an example of a nonpersonal channel of communication. Answer: TRUE 74) A large portion of marketing communication is focused on personal channels of communication. Answer: FALSE 75) B-to-B companies spend a higher percentage of their communications money on mass truyền thông like TV advertising and much less on print advertising than consumer-products companies. Answer: FALSE 76) Advertising has traditionally been defined as any paid or unpaid form of personal communication about an organization, product, service, or idea by an identified sponsor. Answer: FALSE 77) Advertisements offer a fair amount of control over what you can say to potential customers. Answer: TRUE 78) Telemarketing and direct sales approach are part of sales promotion. Answer: FALSE 79) The effectiveness of a direct-mail chiến dịch is easy to evaluate because the response comes quickly after the date of the promotion, or not all. Answer: TRUE 80) Sales promotion involves communication activities that provide extra incentives to customers or the sales force to achieve a short-term objective. Answer: TRUE 81) Sales promotion can induce customers to become brand-loyal. Answer: FALSE 82) Public relations (PR) has more credibility than advertising. Answer: TRUE 83) The major drawback of personal selling is the expense. Answer: TRUE 84) For products and services where there is relatively little information processing, consumers may move from the cognitive stage directly to the behavioral stage and then form attitudes after product usage. Answer: TRUE 85) The advertisements that use news appeals make either a direct or indirect claim of superiority against a targeted or general class of competitors. Answer: FALSE 86) Informational appeals focus on the functional or practical aspects of the product. Answer: TRUE 87) The most common form of testing for advertising concepts is the use of focus groups. Answer: TRUE 88) Measuring pupil dilation is a method used in readability tests. Answer: FALSE 89) Inquiry tests are used for print ads. Answer: TRUE 90) The minimarket test method is limited to ads for frequently purchased consumer goods with sales objectives. Answer: TRUE 91) Inquiry test is a type of laboratory test. Answer: FALSE 92) TV is better than print ads to target specific audiences. Answer: FALSE 93) TV is the best medium for action and image advertising. Answer: TRUE 94) The number of GRPs attained by a TV schedule is the product of the reach and the frequency. In this case, frequency is the number of times the commercial is aired. Answer: TRUE 95) A basic level of advertising combined with regularly scheduled bursts of advertising is known as "flighting" pattern of advertising. Answer: FALSE 96) Describe the elements of the communication mix. Answer: 97) List the six stages of the advertising decision-making process. Answer: 98) List and briefly describe the general types of informational appeals. Answer: 99) Describe the major types of truyền thông and the advantages of each. Answer: 100) List and briefly describe the most commonly-used methods for setting advertising budgets. Answer: 1) Which of the following is an action-focused marketing sự kiện that attempts to get customers to purchase within a limited period of time? Answer: sales promotion 2) Identify the discrete programs with well-defined beginning and starting dates that offer incentives to customers to purchase or use the product. Answer: sales promotion 3) Which of the following is almost always the measure of effectiveness of a sales promotion? Answer: sales 4) Which of the following statements is true about customer promotion? Answer: It comes directly to the customer from the manufacturer. 5) Identify the objective of trade promotions. Answer: Giving the intermediaries incentives to carry and sell the product. 6) Which of the following statements is true about channel-originated promotion? Answer: It is run by the channel, either to the next channel in the distribution chain or to final customers. 7) Giving the intermediaries incentives to carry and sell the product is most likely to be known as ________ activities. Answer: push 8) Consumer-oriented promotion gives customers a reason to purchase the product. This process represents: Answer: pull promotion. 9) Which of the following is the dominant form of price-oriented promotions? Answer: couponing 10) Which of the following is an effective way to target discounts and other incentives to households that are particularly sensitive to price? Answer: couponing 11) Which of the following statements is true about price-oriented promotions? Answer: The dominant form of price-oriented promotion is couponing. 12) Identify the correct statement about coupons. Answer: The largest distribution channel for coupons is by far không lấy phí-standing inserts (FSIs). 13) Which of the following is one of the main reasons marketers use coupons heavily? Answer: Coupons are an effective way to target price-sensitive households. 14) Bonus packs which offer larger sizes for the same price as a smaller size are used for: Answer: price-oriented promotion. 15) Rebates are an example of ________ promotion. Answer: price-oriented 16) Which of the following is an example of a consumer price-oriented promotion? Answer: money-back offer 17) Which of the following types of coupon appears on the actual pages of newspapers rather than being inserted as a separate page or section? Answer: in-ad coupons 18) Which of the following represents a coupon for another brand, manufactured by the same or a different firm and the coupon itself can be in- or on-package? Answer: cross-ruff coupon 19) Which of the following types of coupons is located on the outside of the package and can be used for a subsequent purchase? Answer: on-package coupons 20) With reference to price-oriented promotion, shelf "talkers" is best described by: Answer: price signs posted on the shelf. 21) Identify the type of promotion that gives away the product itself or a closely related product. Answer: product-oriented promotion 22) Identify the product-oriented promotion in which a product is given away for không lấy phí. Answer: sampling 23) Sampling is most likely to be used: Answer: when a new product or brand is being introduced. 24) Which of the following is an example of sampling? Answer: offering a không lấy phí drug to a physician 25) Which of the following statements is true about sampling? Answer: A sampling program may not target the right potential customers. 26) Which of the following is an example of a consumer product-oriented promotion? Answer: premiums 27) Offering a không lấy phí toy in a Cracker Jack box is an example of: Answer: premiums. 28) Procter & Gamble ran a repeat-purchase-oriented promotion for its Pampers brand of disposable diapers, where parents obtained points from each purchase redeemable for Fisher-Price toys. This is an example of: Answer: premiums. 29) Identify the product-oriented promotion where không lấy phí merchandise is provided with a purchase or some không lấy phí or reduced-price item for which the buyer must send in proof-of-purchase, with or without money. Answer: premiums 30) Identify the category of promotions which include contests and sweepstakes. Answer: special events 31) Market development funding, generous return policies, and off-invoice allowances are examples of: Answer: trade promotions. 32) Which of the following best describes off invoice allowance? Answer: offering channel members a discount on orders for a fixed period of time 33) Which of the following explains market development funding? Answer: offering money to help the channel members sell its products 34) Payments made to store chains for placing a product on a shelf are known as: Answer: slotting allowances. 35) ________ compensate retailers for prominently displaying and promoting goods. Answer: Display allowances 36) Which of the following types of trade promotion allows the channel thành viên to return unsold merchandise for a full or partial refund, thus reducing the risk of carrying the product? Answer: product-based promotion 37) When the company and the retailer share the expense of the retailer advertising the company's products in the local market, this is known as: Answer: cooperative advertising. 38) Which of the following is a controversial form of sales-based incentive where direct prizes or bonuses are given to the channel's sales force for meeting or exceeding a quota? Answer: spiffs 39) Identify the trade promotion that is the most risky for a company. Answer: price-based promotions 40) When a retailer or distributor stocks up on a product a discount while promotion is running and then sells the inventory regular price, the process is called: Answer: forward buying. 41) Of all the trade promotions mentioned in the text, which of the following carries the most risk to the company? Answer: price-based promotion 42) "Endcaps" refer to: Answer: end-of- aisle displays. 43) A shelf talker is: Answer: a sign hanging on the shelf with information, usually about a special price. 44) Special displays and other company-paid advertisements inside the store (e.g. announcements for contests and sweepstakes, information about recipes, etc.) are examples of: Answer: point-of-purchase advertising. 45) If category sales are fixed and marketing managers are interested in profit margins rather than market share, companies are better off: Answer: having low level of expenditure. 46) The most common objective of a consumer promotion is: Answer: short-run transactional goal. 47) Which of the following is a short-run objective of customer promotion? Answer: increased purchase by current customers 48) Identify the situation in which a channel will want đơn hàng for forward buying. Answer: high promotional elasticity and low holding cost 49) Which of the following is the largest part of the advertising/promotion budget? Answer: trade promotions 50) When holding costs and price elasticity are high, the manager should use: Answer: trade đơn hàng. 51) Specialty cheeses are most likely to have: Answer: low promotional elasticity and high holding cost. 52) Paper products are most likely to have: Answer: high promotional elasticity and high holding cost. 53) Laxatives are most likely to have: Answer: low promotional elasticity and low holding cost. 54) Canned tuna fish is most likely to have: Answer: high promotional elasticity and low holding cost. 55) In order to maintain the profit level of the product to the channel thành viên and keep the product on the shelves, the marketing manager uses ________ to compensate for the decline in sales. Answer: price-oriented promotions 56) A particularly important purpose of retail-oriented promotions is: Answer: to gain or maintain distribution. 57) An important criterion for evaluating ________ is how often a retail promotion is run when the channel members receive some kind of giảm giá. Answer: trade promotions 58) Which of the following conditions is typical of consumer products and services? Answer: The product is standardized. 59) Which of the following factors affects the allocation of funds between advertising and promotions? Answer: the total amount of resources available 60) Most sales promotion money is spent on product categories in which: Answer: decision making is routine. 61) ________ activities are those activities that build brand equity, including advertising sampling, couponing, and product demonstrations. Answer: Consumer franchise-building 62) ________ activities focus on price alone and include trade promotions, short-term price đơn hàng, and refunds. Answer: Non-consumer franchise-building 63) In order for the brand to remain healthy, the least value of the consumer franchise-building percent ratio should be: Answer: 50 percent. 64) Bar codes are also known as: Answer: universal product codes. 65) "Sales promotion" involves boosting sales in short term. Answer: TRUE 66) Trade promotion is directed end consumers. Answer: FALSE 66) Trade promotion is directed end consumers. Answer: TRUE 68) Pull promotion activities give the intermediaries incentives to carry and sell the product. Answer: FALSE 69) For consumer-product companies that are the heaviest users of advertising and promotion, there has been a significant shift over time away from promotion toward truyền thông advertising. Answer: FALSE 70) The dominant form of price-oriented promotion is couponing. Answer: TRUE 71) The largest distribution channel for coupons is by far không lấy phí-standing inserts (FSIs). Answer: TRUE 72) Coupons are an effective way to target discounts and other incentives to households that are particularly sensitive to price. Answer: TRUE 73) E-coupons delivered through the Web have a much lower redemption rate than those delivered the old-fashioned way. Answer: FALSE 74) Coupons permit marketing managers to price discriminate, that is, charge different prices to different households. Answer: TRUE 75) Coupon programs provide competitive advantage. Answer: FALSE 76) The response rates for coupons are very high, so the expense per redemption is low. Answer: FALSE 77) Rebates are rarely used in auto industry. Answer: FALSE 78) Price promotions can dilute brand equity. Answer: TRUE 79) In product-oriented promotions, giving away the product không lấy phí is called sampling. Answer: TRUE 80) Sampling is less effective than coupons, advertising, and games or contests in helping consumers evaluate products. Answer: FALSE 81) A sampling program always targets the right potential customers. Answer: FALSE 82) Contests and sweepstakes fall under the category of promotions known as special events. Answer: TRUE 83) Offering off invoice allowance is an example of consumer-oriented promotion. Answer: FALSE 84) The money a company spends to help the channel members sell its products is called market development funding. Answer: TRUE 85) Off-invoice allowances are payments to store chains for placing a product on a shelf. Answer: FALSE 86) The largest amount of market development funds is spent on slotting allowances. Answer: TRUE 87) Product-based promotions carry the most risk to the company. Answer: FALSE 88) Displays and other company-paid advertisements inside a store are called point-of-purchase advertising. Answer: TRUE 89) Retailer promotions are ineffective in getting customers to increase their purchase quantities. Answer: FALSE 90) Promotions for existing products have been found to have a large impact on sales and other objectives, but most evidence shows that these effects are temporary. Answer: TRUE 91) Promotion typically takes the long-run view. Answer: FALSE 92) Sales increases from customer-oriented promotions reflect accelerated purchases by loyal buyers rather than new sales volume from brand switchers. Answer: TRUE 93) Trade promotion is the smallest part of the advertising/promotion budget. Answer: FALSE 94) One approach to evaluating trade promotions is tracking the before-and-after results. Answer: TRUE 95) The focus of retail promotions is on the retail store or chain rather than a specific brand. Answer: TRUE 97) Summarize the advantages and disadvantages of coupons. Answer: The dominant form of price-oriented promotion is couponing. Marketers prefer coupons because of two main reasons. Firstly, coupons are an effective way to target discounts and other incentives to households that are particularly sensitive to price. Second, coupons are flexible in that they can achieve different kinds of goals. 98) Write a short note on trade promotions. Answer: Like customer-oriented promotions, trade promotions, or incentives offered to the members of the channel system, can also be divided into groups based on their characteristics. Product-based promotions include không lấy phí goods and generous return policies. Return policies allow the channel to return unsold merchandise for a full or partial refund, reducing the risk of carrying the product. 99) List the conditions in which companies spend more on advertising and promotion relative to sales. Answer: 100) What are the factors to be considered while allocating money between advertising and promotion? Answer: 1) The system through which customers have access to your product or service to be able to purchase it represents: Answer: the channels of distribution. 2) With reference to a value-added chain, the beginning of the chain consists of: Answer: suppliers. 3) Activities of channel management that require motivating customers to ask for your brand by name are referred to as ________ activities. Answer: push 4) Which of the following indicates physical distribution of goods from one location to another? Answer: logistics 5) Activities of channel management that requires getting channels to carry and sell the product are known as ________ activities. Answer: pull 6) Which of the following statements is true regarding channels? Answer: Pull activities of channel management require getting channels to carry and sell the product. 7) According to the text, channels of distribution must be treated like: Answer: customers. 8) Which of the following is one of the components of the value-added chain of distribution channels? Answer: customers 9) Which of the following statements is true regarding the value-added chain of distribution channels? Answer: Distribution channels establish a connection between the firm and the customers. 10) Which of the following marketing intermediaries is a business that assists in the performance of distribution tasks other than buying, selling, and transferring title? Answer: facilitating agent 11) Which of the following describes a business unit that negotiates purchases or sales but does not take title to the goods? Answer: agent 12) Which of the following best describes an agent who generally operates on an extended contractual basis, often sells within an exclusive territory and handles non-competing but related lines of goods? Answer: manufacturer's agent 13) A middleman who buys from manufacturers and sells to retailers is called a: Answer: jobber. 14) A merchant establishment operated by a concern that is engaged primarily in buying, taking title to, usually storing and physically handling goods in large quantities, and reselling the goods (usually in smaller quantities) to retail or to industrial or business users is known as a(n): Answer: wholesaler. 15) Identify the individual who serves as a go-between for the buyer and seller, but is not seen as a permanent representative of the buyer or seller. Answer: broker 16) A merchant middleman who is engaged primarily in selling to ultimate consumers is known as a: Answer: retailer. 17) Which of the following statements is true regarding changes in the distribution channel? Answer: Innovation in distribution can create new marketing opportunities. 18) As customer knowledge about a product increases: Answer: sales through outlets increase and they offer wide product lines and low prices increase. 19) Because channel members often have direct contact with customers, it is an ideal situation for collecting information about customer and competitor behavior. Which of the following channel functions best describes this sự kiện? Answer: marketing research 20) Some channel members seek out and interact with customers. Independent agents and wholesalers develop retail accounts for products. This channel function is known as: Answer: contact. 21) Wholesalers try to deliver products to customers in lot sizes that match their needs. Identify this channel function. Answer: matching/customizing 22) When providing basic logistical services, the channel thành viên is providing the function of: Answer: physical distribution. 23) Sales literature and product brochures are distributed through wholesalers and retailers. Identify this channel function. Answer: communication 24) When the distribution system is characterized by the channel thành viên purchasing and therefore taking title to the products, it performs the: Answer: risk taking function. 25) When the channel thành viên can enhance (or harm) the quality of the relationship between the selling firm and the customer, the channel thành viên is engaging in: Answer: relationship management. 26) For some products, channels may actually be part of the manufacturing process by performing certain production functions. Identify this channel function. Answer: product assembly 27) Identify the key reason for picking a particular channel system. Answer: To differentiating your product or service from the competition. 28) While formulating marketing strategy, companies such as Amway, Tupperware, and Mary Kay Cosmetics differentiate on the basis of: Answer: door-to-door as opposed to retail sales. 29) Which of the following statements is true about a direct channel? Answer: A company may have independent parties participate in a direct channel. 30) Which of the following statements is true about an indirect channel? Answer: Indirect channels can reach more customers and perform functions that the sales force cannot. 31) When does a direct channel appear to be better than an indirect channel? Answer: When product customization is important. 32) Identify the situation where indirect channels are more useful than direct channels. Answer: When after-sale service is important. 33) Walmart used its investments in information technology to create direct links between its own warehouses and manufacturers, thereby eliminating the need for independent wholesalers in its system. This is an example of: Answer: disintermediation. 34) Retailers have category managers who are empowered to: Answer: operate their categories as separate businesses. 35) Which of the following statements is true about a multiple-channel system? Answer: Loss of control is a typical problem associated with a multiple-channel system. 36) In order to compete with "category killer" stores, local stores must offer ________ to warrant customer loyalty. Answer: sufficient service 37) Identify the multiple channel system in which channel members perform complementary functions, often for the same customer thereby allowing for specialization and better levels of performance. Answer: hybrid system 38) A modification of the multiple-channel system is the ________ system. Answer: hybrid 39) Identify the situation where channel members have significant bargaining power over the marketing manager. Answer: When the channel poses a credible threat of backward integration. 40) Which of the following statements is true regarding a "category killer"? Answer: They are also known as big box retailers. 41) The sales force is rewarded on a commission basis. It wants to sell quantity and is willing to be flexible on price, whereas the organizations strategy is high quality, high price. Identify this source of conflict. Answer: goal divergence 42) Identify the source of conflict when the perception of who owns a particular sector differs from channel participants. Answer: domain dissensus 43) A retailer may not think that the manufacturer's support in terms of cooperative advertising and training is sufficient while the manufacturer believes that it is offering the same level to that retailer as to others that have been successful. Identify this source of conflict. Answer: differing perceptions of reality 44) Supermarkets that have gained power now charge fees for stocking products, called slotting allowances. This is a large problem for small companies trying to break into the channel. Identify the source of conflict. Answer: misuse of power 45) Which of the following is particularly a problem with multiple channels? Answer: domain dissensus 46) Which of the following can be used to resolve conflict? Answer: Working with the channel members to develop joint solutions. 47) A company typically uses ________ when an ingredient is used in or as part of another company's products. Answer: OEMs 48) Which of the following statements is true regarding an original equipment manufacturer (OEM)? Answer: Knowledge of technical aspects of the product is important for OEM marketing. 49) Which of the following best describes organizations that buy products from a variety of vendors, assemble them in packages, and resell the packages to specialized segments? Answer: a value-added reseller 50) An organization focusing on the law firm segment purchases personal computers from a company, bundles together special software designed for client management and law firm accounting, and then sells the package as a turnkey system to customers. This organization is an example of: Answer: a value-added reseller. 51) Which of the following statements is true regarding a value-added reseller? Answer: Marketing managers using VARs also have to have significant branded marketing skills. 52) Which of the following statements is true regarding Russia and other former soviet bloc countries? Answer: In these countries, a significant amount of purchasing is done on the black market. 53) It is difficult to enter Nhật bản's retail market because of: Answer: its maze of importion and operational laws. 54) In China, foreign firms are often ________ to set up their own distribution networks. Answer: forbidden 55) Which of the following is most likely to be associated with selling of trademarked goods through channels of distribution that are not authorized by the holder of the trademark? Answer: a gray market 56) Which of the following best describes retailers' scarce resources? Answer: selling space 57) Which of the following is more concerned with how a particular product category is selling rather than a particular brand? Answer: retailer 58) Product categories are considered to be the business units that should be customized on a store-by-store basis to satisfy customer needs. Which of the following best describes this process? Answer: category management 59) Identify the systems in which the manufacturer must be concerned about meeting not only its own objectives but also the objectives of the retailer. Answer: category management system 60) ________ is most often found when there are significant currency-exchange-rate or price differences between countries that make it profitable to purchase goods in one country and then import them into another for resale. Answer: Parallel importing 61) Under ________, the idea is that retailers plan marketing and strategy for an entire group of products rather than on a brand by brand basis. Answer: category management system 62) Which of the following statements is true about continuous replenishment program (CRP)? Answer: It is a part of efficient consumer response. 63) In supermarket retailing there is an increased need to control costs and operate efficiently to compete with category killers. This need to be efficient has created: Answer: efficient consumer response. 64) Which of the following is a process seeking to reducing costs throughout the entire distribution system, resulting in lower prices and increased consumer demand? Answer: efficient consumer response 65) Identify the process where retailers, wholesalers, and marketing managers work together to attempt to accurately forecast demand? Answer: continuous replenishment program 66) Logistic refers to physical distribution of goods from one location to another. Answer: TRUE 67) Companies that are marketing services must solve the same distribution problems as those that market tangible products. Answer: TRUE 68) The channel stops the loading platform and what happens afterward is the buyer's responsibility. Answer: FALSE 69) A middleman who buys from manufacturers and sells to retailers is known as facilitating agent. Answer: FALSE 70) A broker assumes title risk and usually takes physical custody of products. Answer: FALSE 71) A jobber is a middleman who buys from manufacturers and sells to retailers. Answer: TRUE 72) A business that assists in the performance of distribution tasks other than buying, selling, and transferring title is referred to as merchant middleman. Answer: FALSE 73) A merchant middleman who is engaged primarily in selling to ultimate consumers is referred to as broker. Answer: FALSE 74) A merchant establishment operated by a concern that is engaged primarily in buying, taking title to, usually storing and physically handling goods in large quantities, and reselling the goods to retail or to industrial or business users is known as wholesaler. Answer: TRUE 75) A careful analysis of customer behavior leads to a better understanding of what kind of channel structure is necessary to satisfy the different segments. Answer: TRUE 76) Competitive distribution structures cannot differ in the same market. Answer: FALSE 77) Channel systems cannot be as easily changed as a marketing strategy. Answer: TRUE 78) Because agents are compensated only when they sell, based on a negotiated commission rate, the channel costs become fixed costs rather than variable. Answer: FALSE 79) A direct channel is one where the product or service remains under the control of the company from production to customer. Answer: TRUE 80) There are two broad categories of channels: direct and indirect channels. Answer: TRUE 81) In case of an indirect channel, the company has direct contact with the end-customer. Answer: FALSE 82) Indirect channels can reach more customers and perform functions that the sales force cannot. Answer: TRUE 82) Indirect channels can reach more customers and perform functions that the sales force cannot. Answer: FALSE 84) An indirect channel appears to be better than a direct channel when product customization is important. Answer: FALSE 85) One of the problems with using a variety of channels (multiple-channel system) is loss of control over some part of the system. Answer: TRUE 86) In today's marketing environment, designing channel systems with multiple channels is the exception, not the norm. Answer: FALSE 87) A hybrid system is a modification of the multiple-channel system in which members of the channel system perform complementary functions. Answer: TRUE 88) The key difference between hybrid and more conventional multiple-channel systems is that hybrids are more vertical. Answer: FALSE 89) Channel power is the ability of one channel thành viên to get another channel thành viên to do what it otherwise would not do. Answer: TRUE 90) Channel members have significant bargaining power over the marketing manager when the channel has high switching costs. Answer: FALSE 91) "Category killers" are large retailers selling products in a particular product category a discount. Answer: TRUE 92) One of the major sources of channel conflict is goal divergence. Answer: TRUE 93) Developing financial arrangements such as commissions and higher margins is a way to resolve channel conflicts. Answer: TRUE 94) Canon sells laser printer engines to Hewlett-Packard for its LaserJet line. Here Canon acts as a value-added reseller. Answer: FALSE 95) Organizations that buy products from a variety of vendors, assemble them in packages, and resell the packages to specialized segments are known as original equipment manufacturers. Answer: FALSE 96) List and briefly describe the major channel functions. Answer: 97) List and briefly describe the situations in which channel members are likely to have significant bargaining power over the marketing manager. Answer: 98) List and briefly describe the four major sources of channel conflict. Answer: 99) List alternative ways to resolve channel conflicts. Answer: 99) List alternative ways to resolve channel conflicts. Answer: 1) Which of the following statements is true regarding relationship customers? Answer: They are interested in the benefits of interdependency between the buyer and the seller. 2) Identify the correct statement about transaction buyers. Answer: They are interested only in the particular purchase hand. 3) Which of the following statements is true regarding customer loyalty? Answer: Loyal customers stimulate revenue growth. 4) Lifetime customer value is often described as the: Answer: present value of a stream of revenue that can be produced by a customer. 5) Retained customers ________ than switchers. Answer: are more profitable 6) Which of the following costs represent an initial cost for any customer? Answer: acquisition cost 7) ________ profit is simply the profit margin a company earns from an average customer. Answer: Base 8) Retained customers have been found to: Answer: increase their purchase quantities over time. 9) Existing customers ________ than new customers. Answer: cost less to serve 10) Loyal customers are often more ________ than customers who need price inducements to switch or become a new customer. Answer: price-insensitive 11) Which of the following is most likely to be a part of customer relationship management (CRM)? Answer: maintaining telephone call centers for contact management 12) The core of a CRM program is a ________ database. Answer: customer 13) Which of the following statements is true regarding a customer information file (CIF)? Answer: It contains purchase history of customers. 14) Many companies view their CIFs as a key source of: Answer: competitive advantage. 15) Which of the following information is contained in a customer information file (CIF)? Answer: contact history of the customers 16) Which of the following is one of the challenges to creating a customer database? Answer: expansion in the number of possible "touchpoints" 17) Which of the following statements is true about customer interaction in packaged goods industry? Answer: Customer interaction is indirect and interaction frequency is high. 18) Data mining refers to: Answer: analyzing a customer information file. 19) American Express asking its members to upgrade from Gold to Platinum card is an example of: Answer: upselling. 20) A back-of-the-envelope approach to calculating lifetime customer value (LCV) is a margin "multiple," which can be used to multiply the current margin generated by each customer to estimate the LCV. This multiple is shown by the formula: r/(1 + i + r). In this formula, "r" stands for: Answer: retention rate for the product. 21) A major benefit of the lifetime customer value (LCV) and profitability analyses is to permit the marketing manager to make informed decisions about: Answer: which customers to keep. 22) Which of the following will be included in the marketing cost? Answer: cost of product samples 23) LCV calculations are important for firms trying to calculate: Answer: future profitability. 24) The basic customer satisfaction model is often called ________ because it presumes that levels of customer satisfaction with a product or service are determined by how well the product performs relative to what the customer expects. Answer: an expectation confirmation/disconfirmation model 25) Which of the following is most likely to be used for measuring customer satisfaction levels? Answer: five point scale 26) Net Promoter is a metric introduced by Reichheld in his 2003 Harvard Business Review article "The One Number You Need to Grow." This metric indicates: Answer: customer loyalty. 27) A large amount of evidence indicates that merely satisfying customers: Answer: is not enough to keep them loyal to your company or product. 28) With reference to the "Net Promoter" customer loyalty metric, the "Net promoter score" is calculated by: Answer: subtracting the percentage of detractors from the percentage of promoters. 29) ________ are customers who are completely satisfied, have high loyalty, and are very supportive of the company. Answer: Loyalist/Apostle 30) Identify the customers who help you get new customers through referrals. Answer: Apostles 31) Which of the following best describes customers who tend to be dissatisfied or somewhere in the middle, switch to competitors, and are unhappy with you? Answer: Defector/Terrorist 32) ________ are customers who have high satisfaction but high switching rates as well. Answer: Mercenaries 33) Which of the following are customers stuck with you and may be dissatisfied but they are highly loyal because there may not be a viable alternative? Answer: Hostages 34) ________ and ________ can be highly satisfied but exhibit totally different loyalty patterns. Answer: Apostles; Mercenaries 35) ________ and ________ are both highly loyal, but for different reasons. Answer: Apostles; Hostages 36) Identify the customer who is most likely to spread negative word of mouth about your products. Answer: Terrorist 37) Which of the following is most likely to be a part of customer service? Answer: repairing a product 38) ________ implies the companies are interested in managing the customer's interaction with the company any number of different interaction points and using the feedback to improve products and processes. Answer: Customer experience management 39) According to the text, the relationship between buyer and seller begins when: Answer: the purchase is made. 40) The key to using customer service to develop long-term relationships is: Answer: to view service as a way of differentiating your product. 41) Those points of contact between the buyer and seller that are most critical to the relationship are called: Answer: moments of truth. 42) Identify the core product for a car. Answer: gas mileage 43) For a car, which of the following will be a part of the expected product? Answer: reliability 44) To arrive the augmented product, a marketer must: Answer: go beyond expectations by offering levels of customer service that competitors cannot match. 45) "If you do not satisfy the customer the first time, you may not get a second chance." Identify this customer service principle. Answer: service is the backbone of any business 46) When service recovery is necessary, customers are: Answer: unhappy. 47) Loyalty programs are also known as: Answer: frequency marketing. 48) ________ encourage repeat purchasing through a formal program enrollment process and the distribution of benefits. Answer: Loyalty programs 49) The frequent-flyer programs offered by every major airline in the world are examples of: Answer: loyalty programs. 50) Mass customization is also referred to as: Answer: one-on-one marketing. 51) ________ is a new process where a company takes a product or service that is widely marketed and offered in many different configurations and develops a system for customizing it to each customer's specification. Answer: Mass customization 52) Lands' End offers tailored clothing on its Web site, allowing one to choose a collar, sleeve style, pocket, etc. This is an example of: Answer: mass customization. 53) NikeID allows customers to build their own shoes and select the colors for just about every area of the shoe. This is an example of: Answer: one-to-one marketing. 54) A group of customers who share information between themselves and the company about their experiences with the product or service is most likely to be known as a: Answer: community. 55) Successful communities on the Internet offer participants: Answer: a sense of place with codes of behavior. 56) According to the text, ________ products have formed user groups for years, where groups give the company feedback and give each other tips on how to better use the product. Answer: high-tech 57) With respect to Internet behavior, a study found that the more ________, the more that person tends to visit it and make purchases there. Answer: a person uses the community features of a site 58) Which of the following statements is true regarding TRUSTe? Answer: It is an initiative to build user confidence in joining communities and using the Web in general. 59) A good source of information about how to improve customer loyalty is to examine: Answer: customers who defect. 60) Which of the following is considered to be a traditional marketing metric? Answer: sales volume 61) Which of the following is a primary customer-based metric? Answer: lifetime duration 62) The percentage of customers in group that were obtained the same time who are still customers is known as the: Answer: survival rate. 63) The probability of a customer being active or purchasing in a given time frame is represented by: Answer: P (Active). 64) The amount of money spent on the whole category of a product is known as: Answer: size of wallet. 65) The expected length of time a customer will remain active is known as: Answer: lifetime duration. 66) Win-back rate indicates: Answer: customers who return who had previously defected. 67) ________ indicates the percent of all purchase volume in the category is your brand. Answer: Share of category requirements 68) Identify the correct statement about the CRM-based marketing system. Answer: Share of wallet indicates what percent of all purchase value in the category is your brand. 69) Which of the following can be categorized as a strategic customer-based value metrics? Answer: RFM value 70) Customers who see the benefits of interdependency between the buyer and the seller are known as transaction buyers. Answer: FALSE 71) Customer relationship management (CRM) is often used in the context of relationships that are short term in nature. Answer: FALSE 72) The present value of a stream of revenue that can be produced by a customer is known as lifetime customer value. Answer: TRUE 73) The incremental costs involved in obtaining any new customer is known as acquisition cost. Answer: TRUE 74) The longer a customer is retained, the longer the base profit is earned. Answer: TRUE 75) Existing customers are more expensive to serve than new customers. Answer: FALSE 76) Loyal customers are often more price-insensitive than customers who need a price inducement to switch or to become a new customer. Answer: TRUE 77) The basic idea behind a CRM program is to assess the value of each customer in the CIF to the firm and then develop standardized programs that appeal to most customers. Answer: FALSE 78) Many companies view their customer information file (CIF) as a key source of competitive advantage. Answer: TRUE 79) There are many types of analyses that can be performed on a CIF once it has been assembled. The general name given to such analysis is data mining. Answer: TRUE 80) An advantage of the Internet is that customer movements on the Web can be tracked, stored, and analyzed in real time. Answer: TRUE 80) An advantage of the Internet is that customer movements on the Web can be tracked, stored, and analyzed in real time. Answer: FALSE 82) Lifetime customer value calculations are based on assumptions that can be validated easily and accurately. Answer: FALSE 83) There is a positive relationship between satisfaction, loyalty, and profitability. Answer: TRUE 84) Customer satisfaction data is used by various companies for calculating senior executive bonuses. Answer: TRUE 85) Customers who fall under the terrorist group have high satisfaction but high switching rates as well. Answer: FALSE 86) Customers who fall under the apostle group are usually price-and promotion-sensitive, and rarely stay with you long enough for them to be profitable. Answer: FALSE 87) Customers who fall under the hostage group are completely satisfied, have high loyalty, and are very supportive of the company. Answer: FALSE 88) Apostle customers are those who are completely satisfied and have a high loyalty and are very supportive of the company. Answer: TRUE 89) Customers who fall under the hostage group exhibit high switching rates and low commitment to your products. Answer: FALSE 89) Customers who fall under the hostage group exhibit high switching rates and low commitment to your products. Answer: TRUE 91) The key to using customer service to develop long-term relationships is to view service as a way of differentiating your product from the competition. Answer: TRUE 92) When service recovery is necessary, customers are happy. Answer: FALSE 93) Loyalty programs are also known as facultative programs. Answer: FALSE 94) Mass customization is also known as one-to-one marketing. Answer: TRUE 95) Marketing research studies often focus on your customers or potential customers and rarely are ex-customers analyzed. Answer: TRUE 96) Share of wallet indicates the percentage of customers in group that were obtained the same time who are still customers. Answer: FALSE 97) List and briefly describe the factors that justify why loyal customers are profitable. Answer: 97) List and briefly describe the factors that justify why loyal customers are profitable. Answer: 99) List and briefly describe the useful customer service principles discussed in the text. Answer: 100) Summarize the problems associated with frequency or loyalty programs. Answer: 100) Summarize the problems associated with frequency or loyalty programs. Answer: 1) Which of the following is an example of a services business? Answer: airlines 2) Which of the following is a key difference between services and manufactured products? Answer: Services do not exist until the customer buys them. 3) Identify the statement that is true about services. Answer: Services do not exist until they are sold to customers. 4) Search attributes: Answer: are typical of manufactured products. 5) Which of the following types of attributes are typical of manufactured products? Answer: search 6) ________ attributes are characteristics, the quality of which can be assessed before purchase. Answer: Search 7) Which of the following types of attributes are typical of services? Answer: experience 8) ________ attributes are characteristics, the quality of which can be assessed only after purchase or during consumption. Answer: Experience 9) The reason for the existence of credence attributes is that: Answer: customer lacks the expertise to make an evaluation. 10) A product is high in search attributes. This means that: Answer: the quality of the product can be assessed before purchase. 11) ________ attributes are characteristics, the quality of which may not be determined even after consumption because the customer lacks the expertise to make an evaluation. Answer: Credence 12) Which of the following is not one of the three major types of attributes that are useful for understanding the differences between products and services? Answer: feature attributes 13) Many services are performed by humans. As a result, they can vary from purchase occasion to occasion. This characteristic of services is referred to as: Answer: nonstandardization. 14) The haircut you get in January is different from the haircut you get in June. Which characteristic of services best describes this sự kiện? Answer: nonstandardization 15) Computed axial tomography services use a series of x-rays to make medical diagnosis. Which of the following characteristics of services is absent in this example? Answer: nonstandardization 16) Which of the following is not a characteristic of services? Answer: standardization 17) The excitement of a classroom discussion varies with the preparation by both the instructor and student. If the students or the instructor are unprepared, the quality of the service is diminished. Which of the basic characteristics of services best describes this sự kiện? Answer: inseparability 18) Which of the following products/services is high in search qualities? Answer: jewelry 19) Which of the following products/services is high in experience qualities? Answer: restaurant meals 20) Which of the following is a product/service that is high in credence qualities? Answer: medical diagnosis 21) Quality of a service offering: Answer: is dependent on customer perceptions. 22) The service quality model suggests that: Answer: quality of services is determined by customer perceptions. 23) Experienced quality of service is determined by: Answer: an image the customer forms after the service encounter. 24) Which of the following types of quality results from an image or perception the customer forms after the service encounter? Answer: experienced quality 25) ________ quality is based on how the service is delivered or the quality of the actual interaction with the company. Answer: Functional 26) Which of the following is an example of a functional quality of a service? Answer: friendliness of the operator 27) Which of the following dimensions refers to the ability to perform the service dependably and accurately? Answer: reliability 28) ________ is the ability of the service provider to respond to the customer's needs on a timely basis. Answer: Responsiveness 29) Assurance is the: Answer: service provider's employees' knowledge and courtesy and the confidence they instill. 30) Which of the following best describes the high level of attention given to customers? Answer: empathy 31) Tangible dimension of services refers to: Answer: physical evidence of the service. 32) ________ refers to the service provider's employees' knowledge and courtesy and the confidence they instill. Answer: Assurance 33) Which of the following is not one of the dimensions considered in the RATER model of service quality? Answer: research 34) In a shopping Web site, more negative comments are seen even though most of the customers are satisfied. Which of the following can be used to explain this situation? Answer: loss aversion 35) Which of the following best describes the well-known psychological phenomenon where customers talk more about negative experiences than positive experiences? Answer: loss aversion 36) ________ are situations in which the expectations of service quality were higher than the realized quality. Answer: Losses 37) Loss aversion refers to: Answer: a stronger reaction to negative experiences. 38) Negative gaps in perceived service quality can be remedied by: Answer: lowering customer expectations. 39) When a positive gap exists, the service provider must: Answer: try to match the expectations. 40) Which of the following is a disadvantage associated with positive gaps in perceived service quality? Answer: customers' expectations adapt over time 41) ________ is a popular survey instrument that measures service quality by grouping questions into five categories of service quality. Answer: SERVQUAL 42) A software company's management did not respond though they knew that computer software customers want quick response to phone calls. Identify the type of gap that has occurred here. Answer: the gap between management's perceptions and service quality specifications 43) A customer service person comes 3 hours late to service your computer. Which of the following gaps best describe this situation? Answer: the gap between service delivery and external communications 44) Service quality is measured using: Answer: survey instrument administered to customers. 45) ________ is one of the most popular approaches to measuring service quality. Answer: SERVQUAL 46) Which of the following statements is inconsistent with return on quality (ROQ) approach? Answer: It is not possible to spend too much on quality. 47) Return on quality approach: Answer: is a targeted approach to quality investments. 48) Professional photographers can make the service tangible by: Answer: showing samples. 49) Sampling and other promotions to get customers to try the service low cost or risk are intended to reduce the problem of: Answer: intangibility. 50) Which of the following could be used to increase the tangibility of services and to facilitate prepurchase evaluation? Answer: sampling 51) Which of the following is a characteristic of services? Answer: low barriers to entry 52) Which of the following categories is particularly affected by low barriers to entry? Answer: professional services 53) Low barriers to entry would result in: Answer: employee turnover. 54) In the case of services, ________ focuses squarely on the quality of the employees. Answer: inbound logistics 55) ________ is the product for service companies. Answer: Operations 56) In the services industry, marketing success often leads to success in the marketplace because: Answer: there are often few objective measures to compare competitors. 57) ________ involves creating a flowchart that describes the flow of activity from the time the customer first contacts the service provider to the time the customer receives the service. Answer: Service blueprinting 58) The flow of the service in a service blueprint begins when: Answer: the customer interacts with the firm. 59) "Backstage" contact points in a blueprint refer to: Answer: contacts which are not face-to-face. 60) Nonstandardization of services increases when: Answer: service delivery is outsourced. 61) A ________ is a contractual agreement between originator of the service concept and an individual or an organization that provides retail distribution of the service. Answer: franchise 62) Which of the following distribution channels would deliver the most standardized services? Answer: company-owned 63) Which of the following is a major disadvantage of company-owned service delivery centers? Answer: increased financial risk 64) Which of the following is an advantage of franchising compared to company-owned service distribution? Answer: reduced financial risk 65) Which of the following is a major advantage of using agents and brokers? Answer: Wider distribution of products is possible. 66) Which of the following is a major disadvantage of using agents and brokers? Answer: loss of control over the service delivery 67) Electronic channels are associated with: Answer: low cost and ease of access. 68) ________ involves having customers visualize a concept of relationship by integrating two items in some mutual or reciprocal action. Answer: Interactive imagery 69) Which of the following best describes reference price? Answer: an internal standard against which observed prices are compared 70) The growth strategy that allows the provision of the same service in new locations is referred to as: Answer: multisite. 71) The growth strategy that allows the provision of a different class of service targeting a different market segment, new or existing locations is referred to as: Answer: multisegment. 72) The growth strategy that allows the provision of a new service existing locations is referred to as: Answer: multiservice. 73) Manufactured products are low in search attributes. Answer: FALSE 74) Search attributes for a product is high if its quality can be assessed before purchase. Answer: TRUE 75) Credence attributes refers to the characteristics where the quality cannot be determined even after consumption. Answer: TRUE 76) It is much more difficult to control quality for manufactured products than for services. Answer: FALSE 77) Production and consumption of services is inseparable. Answer: TRUE 78) Quality of a service should not be determined with reference to customer perceptions. Answer: FALSE 78) Quality of a service should not be determined with reference to customer perceptions. Answer: FALSE 80) More than with physical goods, price is often used as an indicator of service quality. Answer: TRUE 81) Reliability is the ability of a service provider to perform the service dependably and accurately. Answer: TRUE 82) Quality of a service is not dependent on the customer's perceptions of the physical evidences. Answer: FALSE 83) Customers generally talk more about positive experiences than negative experiences. Answer: FALSE 84) Negative gaps in perceived service quality can be remedied by lowering customer expectations. Answer: TRUE 85) Positive gaps in perceived service quality are essential for obtaining long-term sustainability. Answer: FALSE 86) Return on quality approach advocates too much spending on quality and related aspects. Answer: FALSE 87) The basic notion behind the ROQ approach is that managers are looking for improvements in actual customer behavior. Answer: TRUE 88) Tangibility of services can be increased by using sampling or other promotions. Answer: TRUE 88) Tangibility of services can be increased by using sampling or other promotions. Answer: FALSE 90) Unlike other service firms, professional services firms are not dependent upon the quality of the employees. Answer: FALSE 91) Onstage contact points refer to contact points that are observable to the customer. Answer: TRUE 92) Because services are characterized by the inseparability of production and consumption, service organizations must be physically present when the service is delivered or engage others to be present. Answer: TRUE 93) The large advantage of company- owned stores is that the financial risk involved is limited. Answer: FALSE 94) Franchising works particularly well when the service can be standardized across disparate geographic locations. Answer: TRUE 95) List and briefly describe the three major types of attributes used to describe products and services. Answer: 95) List and briefly describe the three major types of attributes used to describe products and services. Answer: In many cases, when a service is not performed a particular time, the revenue is lost forever and cannot be recaptured. An example of this is when a FedEx jet takes off with unfilled capacity. Although later planes may be filled, the lost revenue from the unfilled one is gone because the space cannot be held for later purchase. 97) Summarize the basic characteristics of services. Answer: 98) List and briefly describe the five dimensions of service quality. Answer: 99) What is referred to as loss aversion? Answer: Loss aversion is a psychological phenomenon characterized by customers reacting more strongly to unexpectedly poor service than to unexpectedly good service. 100) List and briefly describe the components of the value chain that service companies can use to attempt to differentiate themselves from the competition. Answer: 101) List and briefly describe the major approaches to service distribution. Answer:

Which of the following statements is true about consumer Behaviour?

d. The study of consumer behavior includes factors that influence purchase decisions and product use. All tutors are evaluated by Course Hero as an expert in their subject area. The study of consumer behavior includes factors that influence purchase decisions and product use.

Which of the following is a key aspects regarding consumer behavior?

Social factors: family, friends, education level, social truyền thông, income, all influence consumers' behavior.

Which of the following best represents the definition of consumer behavior?

Consumer Behavior: A consumer generally purchases those products that maximize his satisfaction level.

What are customer behaviors quizlet?

"the dynamic interaction of affect and cognition, behavior, and the environment by which human beings conduct the exchange aspects of their lives." In other words, consumer behavior involves the thoughts and feelings people experience and the actions they perform in consumption processes. Tải thêm tài liệu liên quan đến nội dung bài viết Which of the following statements is true regarding the overall model of consumer behavior?

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